1. 99% likely that she never encountered any “hysteria” over it. Derision, maybe.

   2

2. The especially annoying thing to me about “Latinx” is that English already has a perfectly gender neutral demonym that refers to the people and cultures of the Spanish-settled Americas: Latin.

   English has three gendered pronouns, but stopped using grammatical gender (in the sense of noun class distinctions) in the 11th Century. By the 14th Century, all known dialects of English had dropped grammatical gender entirely.

   Spanish, like the majority of Indo-European languages, kept the grammatical gender, although with only a handful of exceptions they dropped the neuter gender and only use masculine/feminine. But, in most cases in most of these languages, the use of masculine/feminine grammar doesn’t contain any deep meaning or even any relationship to the object referred to… it just is what it is.

   Somehow, people were able to speak Spanish from the Third Century BCE (when it is first recorded as emerging as a distinct language) until the very late Twentieth Century CE without anyone being bothered by this… Thank goodness a handful of W.A.S.P. graduate students at Bryn Mayr or whereverdafuq were “woke” enough to tell the 500+ million native speakers of the language that they were doing a wrongbad thoughtcrime.

   Por favor dame lx cervezx. Necesito emborracharme. Entonces me voy a mudar a Mexicx.”

   2

3. I just like to point out that “latinekis” (how it would actually be pronounced when “translated”) is not and has never been a word in any Spanish speaking country, nor any related language in any other country.
   And then accuse the user of blatant and political cultural appropriation, and attempting to force imperialist English-speaking modes upon other languages, countries, culture, and people.
   Watching them go apoplectic is amusing.

   2

   1. I thought it was pronounced “la tinks.” Which I’m pretty sure is insulting to just about anyone, with the possible exception of Tinkerbell’s kin.

      1

      1. If one pronounces the X as the full word for the letter (ecks) in English, it would presumably require equivalent pronunciation according to the rules of whatever language into which it is inserted. X in Spanish is “ékis.” Thus, latinekis.
         It’s a simple and wonderful way to demonstrate the stupidity of the assumed term, and to show it for the gobbledygook it is.

      2. Convince any idiot saying Latinx, there is a silent W in the word, and is actually pronounced, “La Twincks.” Watch the chaos that ensues.

      3. That would be more or less correct Flemish since they actually have a lot of x endings. It would still rightly enrage any Spanish or Portuguese speakers. Then again I have seen Twitiots claim Spanish is a language and not a people. Showing them Spain on a map is a rude shock.

         1

         1. Flemish, being a dialect of Dutch, doesn’t use x as a language element much at all; it’s found basically only in borrowed words. But for some reason I don’t really understand, there seem to be a fair number of names that end in x. The same names in Holland tend to be spelled with “ks” as the ending. I’m fairly sure they are shortened versions of the patronymic ending “zoon”, for example “dirkszoon” -> “dirckz” -> “derks” or “derx”.

   2. Indeed. The term clearly comes from those who are linguistically illiterate, having no comprehension of any language other than English.

4. I’ve run into that too. A Mexican acquaintance actually thanked me for NOT using that abortion of a term (I believe I was making a joke about ‘the only thing I’m gonna save you from are the spicy Latina chicks, buddy’).

5. “Anytime somebody uses the word LatinX, we should approach the person, slap them across the face and tell them it is the equivalent of calling us ni**ers and political slaves.”

   Gladly! 😀

Comments are closed.